(NCC) WHNP (Prenatal Care) Comprehensive Pre-Assessment Guide Q & S 2024 | Exams Nursing | Docsity (2024)

Download (NCC) WHNP (Prenatal Care) Comprehensive Pre-Assessment Guide Q & S 2024 and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! NCC WHNP Prenatal Care Comprehensive Pre- Assessment Guide Q & S 2024 1. During a prenatal visit, a pregnant woman presents with high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. These signs are indicative of: A. Preeclampsia B. Gestational diabetes C. Placenta previa **Answer: A. Preeclampsia** Rationale: Preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. It is a serious complication of pregnancy that requires close monitoring and possible intervention. 2. Which of the following screening tests is commonly used to assess the risk of neural tube defects in the fetus during prenatal care? A. Chorionic villus sampling B. Amniocentesis C. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein test **Answer: C. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein test** Rationale: The maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein test is a screening test that measures the level of alpha-fetoprotein in the mother's blood to assess the risk of neural tube defects in the fetus. 3. A pregnant woman is Rh-negative, and her partner is Rh-positive. To prevent Rh incompatibility issues, which of the following interventions is recommended? 8. A pregnant woman presents with symptoms of severe itching, particularly on the hands and feet, and jaundice. These symptoms are characteristic of: A. Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy B. PUPPP (Pruritic urticarial papules and plaques of pregnancy) C. Gestational pemphigoid **Answer: A. Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy** Rationale: Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy is a liver disorder that can cause severe itching and jaundice in pregnant women, particularly in the third trimester. 9. Which of the following screening tests is used to assess the risk of chromosomal abnormalities, such as Down syndrome, in the fetus during prenatal care? A. Biophysical profile B. Nuchal translucency ultrasound C. Contraction stress test **Answer: B. Nuchal translucency ultrasound** Rationale: Nuchal translucency ultrasound is a screening test that measures the thickness of the back of the fetal neck to assess the risk of chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus, such as Down syndrome. 10. A pregnant woman is diagnosed with marginal placenta previa. Which of the following activities should be avoided to prevent complications? A. Swimming B. Intercourse C. Walking **Answer: B. Intercourse** Rationale: Intercourse should be avoided in cases of marginal placenta previa to reduce the risk of bleeding and potential harm to the fetus. 11. In a pregnant woman with a history of recurrent urinary tract infections, which of the following interventions is recommended to prevent complications during pregnancy? A. Prophylactic antibiotics B. Increased fluid intake C. Urinary tract ultrasound **Answer: A. Prophylactic antibiotics** Rationale: Prophylactic antibiotics may be prescribed to pregnant women with a history of recurrent urinary tract infections to prevent complications such as pyelonephritis and preterm labor. 12. Which of the following is a common side effect of magnesium sulfate therapy used for the prevention of eclamptic seizures in pregnant women? A. Hypertension B. Nausea and vomiting C. Insomnia **Answer: B. Nausea and vomiting** Rationale: Nausea and vomiting are common side effects of magnesium sulfate therapy, which is used to prevent and treat eclamptic seizures in pregnant women with preeclampsia. 13. A pregnant woman with a history of preterm birth is prescribed corticosteroids to promote fetal lung maturity. How do corticosteroids function in this context? A. By stimulating fetal growth B. By decreasing uterine contractions C. By enhancing lung surfactant production **Answer: C. By enhancing lung surfactant production** Rationale: Corticosteroids work by promoting the production of surfactant in the fetal lungs, which helps improve lung maturity and function, reducing the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in preterm infants. 14. Which of the following conditions is characterized by elevated blood glucose levels that develop during pregnancy and typically resolve after childbirth? A. Gestational diabetes B. Type 1 diabetes C. Hypertensive disorders of pregnancy **Answer: A. Gestational diabetes** 19. A pregnant woman with a history of two previous cesarean deliveries is considering a vagin*l birth after cesarean (VBAC). What is a major concern in this situation? A. Fetal macrosomia B. Uterine rupture C. Placenta previa **Answer: B. Uterine rupture** Rationale: Uterine rupture is a major concern in women attempting a VBAC, as it can lead to serious maternal and fetal complications, including hemorrhage and fetal distress. 20. Which of the following screening tests is used to assess fetal well- being by evaluating fetal movements, breathing, muscle tone, amniotic fluid volume, and fetal heart rate patterns? A. Fetal fibronectin test B. Biophysical profile C. Doppler ultrasound **Answer: B. Biophysical profile** Rationale: The biophysical profile is a screening test that assesses various parameters of fetal well-being to monitor fetal health and make clinical decisions regarding the pregnancy. 21. A pregnant woman with Rh-negative blood type has developed Rh isoimmunization after the birth of her first Rh-positive baby. What intervention is indicated in subsequent pregnancies to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn? A. Amniocentesis B. Rho(D) immune globulin injection C. Chorionic villus sampling **Answer: B. Rho(D) immune globulin injection** Rationale: Rho(D) immune globulin injection is given to Rh-negative mothers who are at risk of Rh isoimmunization to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn in subsequent pregnancies with Rh-positive babies. 22. A pregnant woman presents with persistent abdominal pain, heavy bleeding, and signs of shock. These symptoms are concerning for: A. Ectopic pregnancy B. Placental abruption C. Uterine rupture **Answer: C. Uterine rupture** Rationale: Uterine rupture is a rare but serious complication of pregnancy characterized by the tearing of the uterine wall, leading to heavy bleeding, abdominal pain, and signs of shock. 23. Which of the following is a recommended screening test for detecting chromosomal abnormalities, such as trisomy 21 (Down syndrome), in the first trimester of pregnancy? A. Amniocentesis B. Chorionic villus sampling C. First-trimester combined screening **Answer: C. First-trimester combined screening** Rationale: First-trimester combined screening involves a combination of ultrasound and blood tests to assess the risk of chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus, such as trisomy 21. 24. A pregnant woman with a history of preterm birth is prescribed progesterone supplementation. How does progesterone help prevent preterm labor? A. By slowing fetal growth B. By reducing uterine contractions C. By enhancing placental function **Answer: B. By reducing uterine contractions** Rationale: Progesterone supplementation helps prevent preterm labor by reducing uterine contractions and promoting uterine quiescence, thus decreasing the risk of preterm birth. 25. A pregnant woman is diagnosed with gestational diabetes and is prescribed insulin therapy. What is the rationale for starting insulin in this situation? A. To stimulate fetal growth B. To promote maternal weight loss C. To control blood glucose levels 30. A pregnant woman presents with symphysis-fundal height measurement that is smaller than expected for gestational age. This finding is concerning for: A. Fetal macrosomia B. Intrauterine growth restriction C. Polyhydramnios **Answer: B. Intrauterine growth restriction** Rationale: Intrauterine growth restriction is a condition characterized by poor fetal growth and development, resulting in smaller-than- expected symphysis-fundal height measurements for gestational age. 31. Which of the following is a potential complication of maternal diabetes that can result in excessive fetal growth and difficult delivery? A. Oligohydramnios B. Fetal macrosomia C. Placental abruption **Answer: B. Fetal macrosomia** Rationale: Fetal macrosomia is a condition characterized by excessive fetal growth, often seen in infants born to mothers with diabetes, which can lead to difficult delivery and potential birth injuries. 32. A pregnant woman is diagnosed with chorioamnionitis during labor. What intervention is indicated to reduce the risk of maternal and fetal infections? A. Delayed cord clamping B. Antibiotic therapy C. Continuous fetal monitoring **Answer: B. Antibiotic therapy** Rationale: Antibiotic therapy is indicated in cases of chorioamnionitis to reduce the risk of maternal and fetal infections and prevent complications such as sepsis and preterm labor. 33. A pregnant woman with a history of preterm birth is found to have a short cervix on ultrasound. What intervention is recommended to reduce the risk of preterm labor? A. Cervical cerclage B. Tocolytic therapy C. Amniocentesis **Answer: A. Cervical cerclage** Rationale: Cervical cerclage is a surgical procedure in which the cervix is stitched closed to prevent premature dilation and reduce the risk of preterm labor in women with a history of cervical insufficiency. 34. A pregnant woman presents with severe itching, particularly on the palms and soles, and yellowing of the skin and eyes. These symptoms are characteristic of: A. Preeclampsia B. Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy C. Gestational pemphigoid **Answer: B. Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy** Rationale: Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy is a liver disorder characterized by severe itching, particularly on the palms and soles, and jaundice, which can have implications for maternal and fetal health. 35. Which of the following tests is used to assess the risk of preterm labor by measuring the presence of a protein that acts as a glue between the fetal membranes and the uterine wall? A. Fetal fibronectin test B. Amniocentesis C. Biophysical profile **Answer: A. Fetal fibronectin test** Rationale: The fetal fibronectin test is a screening test used to assess the risk of preterm labor by measuring the presence of fetal fibronectin, a protein that acts as a glue between the fetal membranes and the uterine wall. 36. A pregnant woman presents with persistent vagin*l bleeding, abdominal pain, and a soft, non-tender uterus. These symptoms are concerning for: A. Placental abruption B. Placenta previa C. Uterine rupture **Answer: B. Placenta previa** Correct Answer: A) Obesity Rationale: Obesity is a significant risk factor for developing gestational diabetes due to insulin resistance and hormonal changes during pregnancy. Question: What is the purpose of the Group B streptococcus (GBS) screening during pregnancy? A) To assess fetal growth B) To detect maternal infections C) To prevent neonatal infections Correct Answer: C) To prevent neonatal infections Rationale: GBS screening is performed to identify pregnant women carrying the bacteria to prevent neonatal infections, such as sepsis and pneumonia, during childbirth. Question: Which prenatal vitamin is essential for preventing iron deficiency anemia in pregnant women? A) Calcium B) Vitamin D C) Iron Correct Answer: C) Iron Rationale: Iron is crucial for the production of hemoglobin and red blood cells, and pregnant women require increased iron intake to prevent anemia and support fetal growth. Question: At what gestational age is the glucose challenge test typically performed for screening gestational diabetes? A) 16-18 weeks B) 24-28 weeks C) 32-34 weeks Correct Answer: B) 24-28 weeks Rationale: The glucose challenge test is usually conducted between 24 and 28 weeks of gestation to screen for gestational diabetes by assessing maternal glucose tolerance. Question: What is the purpose of kick counts in prenatal care? A) To monitor fetal movement B) To assess maternal blood pressure C) To measure fundal height Correct Answer: A) To monitor fetal movement Rationale: Kick counts are used to track fetal movements as an indicator of fetal well-being and to identify any changes in activity that may signal fetal distress. Question: Which prenatal screening test evaluates the risk of neural tube defects and genetic disorders? A) Maternal serum screening B) Ultrasound C) Chorionic villus sampling (CVS) Correct Answer: A) Maternal serum screening Rationale: Maternal serum screening analyzes maternal blood to assess the risk of neural tube defects and genetic disorders, providing valuable information for further diagnostic testing if needed. Question: What is the primary goal of prenatal care? A) To monitor maternal weight gain B) To prevent preterm labor C) To promote maternal and fetal health Correct Answer: C) To promote maternal and fetal health Rationale: The main objective of prenatal care is to optimize maternal and fetal well-being by monitoring health, addressing concerns, and promoting healthy behaviors during pregnancy. Question: Which prenatal test is used to determine the Rh factor and blood type of the mother? A) Kleihauer-Betke test B) Indirect Coombs test C) ABO blood typing Correct Answer: C) ABO blood typing C) To monitor fetal well-being Correct Answer: C) To monitor fetal well-being Rationale: The BPP test combines ultrasound and non-stress testing to assess fetal health by evaluating fetal movements, heart rate, muscle tone, breathing, and amniotic fluid levels. Question: Which prenatal screening test assesses the risk of preterm birth and fetal lung maturity? A) Fetal fibronectin test B) Biophysical profile C) Amniocentesis Correct Answer: A) Fetal fibronectin test Rationale: The fetal fibronectin test measures a protein in vagin*l secretions to predict the risk of preterm birth and assess fetal lung maturity, guiding clinical management decisions. Question: What is the purpose of the non-stress test (NST) in prenatal care? A) To measure amniotic fluid levels B) To assess fetal heart rate reactivity C) To evaluate fetal growth Correct Answer: B) To assess fetal heart rate reactivity Rationale: The NST monitors fetal heart rate response to movement as a non-invasive method to assess fetal well-being and oxygenation, particularly in high-risk pregnancies. Question: Which prenatal diagnostic test involves sampling of amniotic fluid for genetic analysis? A) Chorionic villus sampling (CVS) B) Amniocentesis C) Cordocentesis Correct Answer: B) Amniocentesis Rationale: Amniocentesis is a diagnostic procedure that involves extracting a sample of amniotic fluid to analyze fetal chromosomes, detect genetic abnormalities, and assess fetal lung maturity. Question: What is the purpose of the Bishop score in obstetrics? A) To predict fetal weight B) To assess maternal cervical readiness for labor C) To monitor uterine contractions Correct Answer: B) To assess maternal cervical readiness for labor Rationale: The Bishop score evaluates cervical dilation, effacement, station, consistency, and position to assess the readiness of the cervix for labor induction or spontaneous onset of labor.